AP RCET 2024 Question Papers With Preliminary Keys

Master Question Papers With Preliminary Keys for APRCET 2023-24

02/05/2024 (Thursday) Session-I: 9.00am to 11.00am
Subject Id Subject
04 Buddhist Studies View
13 International and Area Studies View
16 Library and Information Science View
21 Philosophy View
22 Physical Education View
26 Public Administration View
38 Botany View
39 Chemical Sciences View
40 Computer Science & Applications View
58 Mechanical Engineering View
02/05/2024 (Thursday) Session-II: 2.30pm to 4.30pm
Subject Id Subject
07 Education View
10 Folklore View
14 Journalism and Mass Communication View
20 Performing Arts View
32 Sociology View
41 Electronics and Instrumentation View
44 Geology View
45 Home Science View
03-05-2024 (Friday) Session-I: 9.00am to 11.00am
Subject Id Subject
05 Commerce View
08 English View
30 Sanskrit View
34 Tourism Management View
43 Geography View
46 Material Science & NanoTechnology View
50 Statistics View
52 Civil Engineering View
57 Food Technology View
62 Bio Technology View
03-05-2024 (Friday) Session-II: 2.30pm to 4.30pm
Subject Id Subject
09 Fine Arts View
11 Hindi View
12 History View
17 Lingustics View
25 psychology View
36 Applied Life Sciences View
48 Physics View
59 Metallurgical Engineering View
65 Mahatma Jyothirao Phule Studies View
67 Geo Engineering View
04-05-2024 (Saturday) Session-I: 9.00am to 11.00am
Subject Id Subject
01 Adult Education View
02 Anthropology View
18 Management View
27 Dr.B.R.Ambedkar Studies View
29 Rural Development View
42 Environmental Science View
47 Mathematics View
53 Chemical Engineering View
56 Electronics & Communication Engineering View
04-05-2024 (Saturday) Session-II: 2.30pm to 4.30pm
Subject Id Subject
06 Economics View
15 Law View
19 Music View
23 Political Science View
49 Sericulture View
51 Zoology View
54 Computer Science and Engineering View
28 Dr. Babu Jagajivan Ram Chair View
05-05-2024 (Sunday) Session-I: 9.00am to 11.00am
Subject Id Subject
31 Social Work View
33 Telugu View
35 Women's Studies View
37 Bio Chemistry View
55 Electrical and Electronics Engineering View
60 Marine Engineering View
61 Pharmacy View
66 Urdu View
68 Meteorology and Physical Oceanography View


AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key | Exam Held on 28.04.2024

 AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key | Exam Held on 28.04.2024 for all questions are now available, Here you can get all AP SET and UGC NET Related Updates, Materials, Previous Year papers ext.

Q.No.50: which of the  following sentences are true with regard to circular communications


Of the four options given, the following are true with regard to circular communication:

  •     It indicates that messages can go in two directions (Option B). Circular communication involves messages flowing back and forth between communicators, as opposed to one-way communication where the flow of information is in one direction only.
  •     A dynamic evolving process that changes over time and crosses situations (Option C). Circular communication is an ongoing process that adapts as the situation changes and understanding develops between the communicators.

So the correct options are B and C only (The answer is B) .

Option A,  it provides a straightforward approach to communicating, is not necessarily true of circular communication. While it can be a straightforward process, it can also be complex as it requires active listening and responding from both communicators.

Option D, it is an ability to manage unknown risks after the project has commenced, is not relevant to circular communication. It describes project management, not communication styles.

Option: No option is correctly given

Q.No.49: Which of the following are limitations of oral communication 

Answer: The major limitations are

Option: D is correct 

Q.No: 48  Which of the following are functions of mass media 

Answer: The following are functions of mass media

  •     Surveillance:Mass media can monitor the activities of individuals and institutions. For example, news organizations often report on the activities of government officials.
  •     Correlation: Mass media can identify relationships between different events or phenomena. For example, a news report might discuss the correlation between poverty and crime.
  •     Cultural transmission: Mass media can transmit culture from one generation to the next and from one society to another. For example, movies and television shows can teach people about different cultures.
  •     Entertainment: Mass media can provide entertainment for people of all ages. For example, television shows, movies, and video games can all be forms of entertainment.
  •     Publicity: Mass media can be used to publicize ideas, products, or services. For example, companies can use advertising to promote their products to consumers.
  •     Diffusion: Mass media can spread information and ideas to a large audience very quickly. For example, social media can be used to spread news and information very rapidly.

So all the options listed contribute to the functions of mass media.

Option: A is correct 

Q.No:47 Match the elements in set-I with the elements in set-II


a. Semantic Barriers -- III. Lack of clarity and complexity, difference in language of communication and mother tongue 

b.  Psychological Barriers---IV. Inadequate attention, premature evaluation of information, anxiety within multiple resources 

c. Cultural Barriers --- II. Lack of similarities, slang, beliefs

d. Physiological Barriers -- Dyslexia, nerve disorders that interfere with speech and hearing

 Option: A is correct

 Q.No: 46 A teacher while teaching a lesson in the class room moving his right shoulder very frequently. what kind of 


the correct option is D. Both verbal and non-verbal communication.

The teacher in the image is exhibiting non-verbal communication through their body language, specifically the frequent movement of their right shoulder. This could be due to various reasons, but it communicates something beyond their spoken words.

Verbal communication refers to the words we use to communicate, while non-verbal communication refers to all the other ways we communicate, such as body language, facial expressions, tone of voice, and posture. Effective communication uses both verbal and non-verbal cues to convey a message clearly and accurately.

Q.No: 45 The number that comes next in the blank 5, 9, 18, 43, 92, 213, ____

the correct option is (D) 382.

The series follows a pattern where the next number is the sum of the previous number and the square of a prime number. In this sequence, the prime numbers increase consecutively.

Here's the breakdown:

    5 + 2^2 (prime number 2) = 9
    9 + 3^2 (prime number 3) = 18
    18 + 5^2 (prime number 5) = 43
    43 + 7^2 (prime number 7) = 92
    92 + 11^2 (prime number 11) = 213
    213 + 13^2 (prime number 13) = 382

Therefore, 382 is the next number in the sequence.

Q.No: 44: 


Petal and flower are related like a part to a whole.

  • A petal is a modified leaf that is part of a flower.
  • Flowers typically have multiple petals, along with other parts like sepals, stamens, and pistils.
  • All the petals of a flower together are called the corolla.

Here's an analogy: Imagine a flower as a house. The petals would be like the colorful shingles on the roof, while the flower itself is the entire structure

the correct option is D. Puppy: Dog.

Both puppy and dog are related by age. A puppy is a young dog. The other options are 

you might have been considering:

  • A. Flower: Plant: This is also a type of hierarchy, but it's broader. A flower is a specific part of a plant, used for reproduction. While puppies are young dogs, all dogs are still plants (incorrect).

  • B. Shirt: Clothing: This describes a part-whole relationship, similar to puppy and dog. However, a shirt isn't a young version of clothing; it's one type of clothing (incorrect).

  • C. Car: Vehicle: This demonstrates a category relationship. A car is a type of vehicle. But a puppy isn't a type of dog; it's a specific age group within dogs (incorrect).

Therefore, option D (Puppy: Dog) best captures the specific age-related hierarchy between the two.

Q.No: 41-43 Based on the given statements 

 answer questions 41 to 43 as follows:

41. Statements:

    i. All fans are watches (సంఖాలన్నీ వాచీలు)
    ii. Some watches are black (కొన్ని వాచీలు నలుపు)


    I. All watches are fans (వాచీలన్నీ సంఖాలు) (D)
    II. Some fans are black (కొన్ని సంఖాలు నలుపు) (D)


The statements do not provide enough information to determine if all watches are fans (Conclusion I) or if some fans are black (Conclusion II). The first statement only says that some fans are watches, but it doesn't say anything about what other things might be watches. The second statement only says that some watches are black, but it doesn't say anything about the color of fans.

Therefore, the answer for question 41 is (D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

42. Statements:

    i. All cows are dogs (ఆవులన్నీ కుక్కలు)
    ii. No dog is a cat (ఏ కుక్కాపిల్లి కాదు)


    I. No cat is a cow (ఏ పిల్లీ ఆవు కాదు) (C)
    II. No cow is a cat (ఏ ఆవూ పిల్లి కాదు) (C)


From the second statement, we know that no dogs are cats. If all cows are dogs (statement i), then it follows that no cows can be cats either (as dogs cannot be cats). Therefore, both Conclusion I and Conclusion II  hold true.

The answer for question 42 is (C) If both conclusions I and II follow.

43. Statements:

    i. All Teachers are actors (ఉపాధ్యాయులందరూ నటులు)
    ii. All actors are women (నటులందరూ స్త్రీలు)


    I. All women are Teachers (స్త్రీలందరూ ఉపాధ్యాయులు) (D)
    II. All Teachers are women (ఉపాధ్యాయులందరూ స్త్రీలు) (C)


The first statement says all teachers are actors, but it doesn't say anything about women in general. So, we cannot be sure if all women are teachers (Conclusion I). However, the second statement says all actors are women. Since all teachers are also actors (statement i), it follows that all teachers must be women (Conclusion II).

The answer for question 43 is (C) If only conclusion II follows.

Q.No: 40. Match the following elements in the given two groups based on various kinds of evaluation 


The description in Group II that aligns with NEP 2020's focus (mentioned in option IV) is formative evaluation (Group II, option c). Formative evaluation is an ongoing process that helps teachers identify student strengths and weaknesses and adjust their instruction accordingly. This aligns with the goals of NEP 2020, which emphasizes a more learner-centered approach to education.

Option: A is correct

Q.No: 39. Which of the following method are learner calculated methods


all the methods listed (a. historical method, b. lecture method, c. heuristic method, d. project method, e. activity-based method, f. lecture demonstration method, g. storytelling method, and h. problem-solving method) can be considered learner-calculated methods.

Here's why:

    Learner-centered methods: All the methods listed emphasize the learner's active participation in the learning process. They encourage learners to construct their own understanding of concepts rather than passively receiving information.

While some methods provide a structured approach (like the historical method or the lecture demonstration method), they still require learners to analyze information and form their own conclusions.

Other methods, like the project method or the activity-based method, are inherently learner-centered as they involve students actively engaging in tasks and problems.

Option: A is correct

Q.No: 38: Which of the  following state are true with respect to SWAYAM PRABHA 

Option: C is correct  ( c, d, e only)

Proof for choice d: https://swayamprabha.gov.in/about

the following statements are true with respect to SWAYAM PRABHA:

  • c. The main objective of SWAYAM PRABHA is to telecast quality programmes on 24 x 7 basis using GSAT-15 satellite. (✓)
  • e. SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 40 DTH Channels. (✓)

Q.No: 37 Which of the  following characteristics are shown during adolescence? 

What is the adolescent age?

The age of adolescence starts at the onset of puberty and lasts until adulthood. For most people, the age range is from around ten until twenty-one.

What are the five characteristics of adolescence?

There are several characteristics of adolescence. Five characteristics are: rapid growth both physically and mentally, sexual attraction, cognitive development, interests in new hobbies and self discovery, and importance of acceptance by peer groups.

There are three stages of adolescence:

  • Early Adolescence Age is from 10 to 13
  • Middle Adolescence Age is from 14-17
  • Late Adolescence Age is from 18-21 and beyond

Option: D is correct 

Q.No: 36 Match the elements given in the two columns related to various levels of teaching 

the various levels of teaching, going beyond the information you might have seen in the image:

1. Memory Level of Teaching (Thoughtless Teaching):

    Focus: Rote memorization and recall of facts.
    Teaching methods: Lectures, drills, repetition.
    Benefits: Can be useful for basic skills or building a foundation of knowledge.
    Drawbacks: Doesn't encourage deep understanding or application of knowledge.
    Example: Memorizing the order of the planets without understanding their characteristics or relative sizes.

2. Understanding Level of Teaching (Thoughtful Teaching):

    Focus: Helping students understand the "why" behind concepts.
    Teaching methods: Explanations, discussions, demonstrations, analogies.
    Benefits: Encourages students to make connections and apply knowledge to new situations.
    Drawbacks: May not always encourage critical thinking or reflection.
    Example: Exploring the forces involved in planetary motion and their impact on orbits.

3. Reflective Level of Teaching (Critical Thinking Teaching):

    Focus: Encourages critical thinking, personal reflection, and independent learning.
    Teaching methods: Open-ended questions, debates, problem-solving activities, research projects.
    Benefits: Develops critical thinking skills, problem-solving abilities, and lifelong learning habits.
    Drawbacks: Requires more time and effort from both teachers and students.
    Example: Discussing the implications of human space exploration on future generations.

Option: B is correct 

Q.No: 35 How many pairs are correctly matched 

1) Kaziranga National Park a world heritage site is famous for the Great Indian one horned rhinoceros, the landscape of Kaziranga is of sheer forest, tall elephant grass, rugged reeds, marshes & shallow pools. It has been declared as National Park in 1974.

2) Sariska National Park, one of the most famous tiger reserves in Rajasthan, surrounded by the Aravalli Hills, stretches across more than 800 square kilometers. The best way of exploring the rich wildlife of Sariska Tiger Reserve is of course, with a jeep safari.

 3) Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary (PNP) is a protected area located in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala, India. It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve.

4) Bannerghatta National Park is a natural park near Bangalore, Karnataka. It was founded in 1970 and is famous for its tiger and lion safaris.

5) Dachigam National Park is located 22 km (kilometer) from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an area of 141 sq km (square kilometer). The name literally stands for ‘ten villages’, which could be in memory of the ten villages that were relocated in order to create the park.

6)  The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary (also known as Chandraprabha) is situated in the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh. It is well endowed with beautiful picnic spots, dense forests, and scenic waterfalls like Rajdari and Devdari that attract tourists every year to its vicinity.

From the  above, in the given question 6th one wrong.

Option: B is correct

 Q.No: 34 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched 

 a) Taj Mahal - Mathura refinery: -- Mathura refinery releases toxic gases like oxides of sulphur which causes acid rain and hence causes corrosion of the marbles of Taj Mahal. The environmentalists analysed that the refinery is creating high levels of suspended particulate matter, dust and exhaust.

b) Citrus plants - Velia lady bugs:-- Citrus plants are fruit-bearing trees like lemon, orange, and grapefruit. Velia ladybugs are beneficial insects that prey on aphids and other pests that can harm citrus plants. So, there's an indirect connection

c)  Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is a gas pollutant that can irritate the respiratory system and contribute to respiratory problems like bronchitis. This is a well-established connection.

d) The United States works closely with Georgia to promote mutual security, counterterrorism interests and provides Georgia with bilateral security assistance, including English-language and military professional training, through the International Military Education and Training (IMET) program.

 Option: A is correct

 Q.No:33 match the following various environmental issues

a) Chipko Movement 

The movement was led by several individuals, including activists like Chandi Prasad Bhatt, Gaura Devi, and Sunderlal Bahuguna. (4)

he Sangh also decided to resort to tree-hugging, or Chipko, as a means of non-violent protest. But the struggle was far from over, as the same company was awarded more ash trees, in the Phata forest, 80 km (50 miles) away from Gopeshwar. (7)

b)  The Tehri

The Tehri Dam is situated in the Tehri Garhwal district in Uttarakhand, India. This multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam is the tallest dam in the country. (6)

Tehri dam river is the Bhagirathi River of Uttarakhand. (1)

c) Silent Valley

Silent Valley movement was a social movement aimed at the protection of Silent Valley, an evergreen sub-tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India. (2) 

The British named the area ‘Silent Valley’ because of a perceived absence of noisy Cicadas. 

Occurrence of lion-tailed macaque is dependent on the flowering of Cullenia exarillata in the forest. (8)

d) Narmada Bachao Andolan

Narmada Bachao Andolan is an Indian social movement spearheaded by native tribals (adivasis), farmers, environmentalists and human rights activists against a number of large dam projects across the Narmada River, which flows through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

 Narmada Bachao Andolan was started in the 1980s with Medha Patkar and Baba Amte as the face of the Andolan. This Andolan was started by the farmer, social activists, Adivasis, and people across the river bank to help the people displaced by the large-scale construction of the Sardar Sarovar dam.

Option: A is correct 

Q.No: 32 Why did this forest area is called ‘Silent Valley’/

Answer: The British named the area ‘Silent Valley’ because of a perceived absence of noisy Cicadas.

 Option: C is correct 

Q.No: 31 Match the following environment summits

a) he Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in the year 1986. It was enacted with the main objective to provide the protection and improvement of the environment and for matters connected therewith.

b) The Montreal Protocol, finalized in 1987, is a global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS).

c) he Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty which extended the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that global warming is occurring and that human-made CO₂ emissions are driving it. 

d) The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an initiative proposed by our Prime Minister Narendra Modi and was launched by him at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris along with the President of France. It was launched on 30th November 2015.

The Sixth Assembly of the International Solar Alliance is being held in New Delhi from October 30 - November 2, 2023. The Assembly will be presided over by the President, ISA Assembly and Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy, Government of India, Shri R.K. Singh

e) The Paris Agreement is an international treaty on climate change that was adopted in 2015. The treaty covers climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance. The Paris Agreement was negotiated by 196 parties at the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference near Paris, France.

Option: C is correct

Q.No:30 The continuous data in the following  

Option: D is correct 

Continuous data can take on any value within a specific range. You can measure it infinitely precisely within that range. In the case of height, students can have various heights ranging from, say, 140 cm to 190 cm (and even beyond depending on the age group). You can measure their heights to multiple decimal places if you have a precise instrument.

Other options:

    (A) Population below poverty line: This data is likely discrete. The population below the poverty line is typically counted as a whole number and wouldn't involve continuous values.
    (B) Teaching faculty of a university department: This is also discrete data. You can only have a whole number of faculty members in a department, not fractional values.
    (C) Number of literates in a village: Similar to population below the poverty line, the number of literates in a village is likely a whole number and wouldn't involve continuous values.

 Q.No: 29 To enable viewers to make predictions about the data as how one variable is affected by increase or decrease of others, we usually use

Answer: Line Graph 

Movement of the line up or down helps bring out positive and negative changes, respectively. It can also expose overall trends, to help the reader make predictions or projections for future outcomes. Multiple line charts can also give rise to other related charts like the sparkline or ridgeline plot.

 Q.No: 26-28: Data Interpretation 

Q.No: 25 The following are options for research report 

Answer: Option D is correct

 Q.No: 24 In research methodology gap analysis is done after the following

Answer: D after defining the problem

Q.No: 23. In the following, the principles of research ethics does not include

Answer: Option A (conflict of interest)

Q.No: 22 the data collected from books and records are _______sources of information

Answer: Option B (Secondary source)

Q.No: 21 the value of the research can be judged by___

Answer: Objectives of the research.

Option: B is correct 

  • Meeting its objectives: Did the research achieve what it set out to do? Were the research questions answered effectively?
  • Originality and contribution to knowledge: Does the research break new ground? Does it offer new insights or understanding of a topic?
  • Rigor of methodology: Was the research conducted in a sound and unbiased way? Were appropriate methods used to collect and analyze data?
  • Impact: How can the findings of the research be applied? Does it have the potential to solve problems or improve practices?
  • Credibility and peer review: Was the research published in a reputable journal or presented at a respected conference? Has it been reviewed by other experts in the field?

Q.No: 20 What are the three pillars of It Governance 


Reports, Compliance, and Security: The Three Pillars of Effective IT Governance. IT governance is the process of ensuring that IT supports the strategic objectives and goals of the organisation, while managing the risks and costs associated with IT.

Option: D is correct 

Q.No: 19 The following is the repository of Ph.D thesis 

Answer: "Shodhganga" is the name coined to denote digital repository of Indian Electronic Theses and Dissertations set-up by the INFLIBNET Centre.

Option: B is correct

Q.No: 18 FTP stands for 

Answer: File Transfer protocol 

Option: A is correct 

Q.No: 17 ROM Stands for 

Answer: A Read Only Memory 

Q.No: 16 The basic unit of information in quantum computing is called


Just like a binary bit is the basic unit of information in classical (or traditional) computing, a qubit (or quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing.

Option: A is correct 

Q.No:15 Which of the following statements are true with regards to values?

a) values are man made says pragmatism (True). Because it is one of the fundamental principle of pragmatism

b) according to the idealism values are perennial (True). Reference 

c) conceptual methods biographical method story telly methods are best methods to teach values (True)

Reference: Value Education UGC NET

Biographical learning as a pedagogical method, by which a teacher encourages learners to develop a personal, sensuous language about their experiences, may support learners' involvement in dialogues and narrative activities, which form the basis for personal narratives surrounding concrete meaningful experiences

 Q.No: 14 Which of the following correctly matched

Answer: All are correctly matched 

Q.No: 13 Which of the  following learning center is called ghatikasthanam

Answer: Option B is correct: Historically, Kanchipuram was a centre of education and was known as the ghatikasthanam, or "place of learning". 

Q.No: 12 Which of the following are not the aims of education during ancient education

Answer: ancient education teach should lead the complete life on Dhrama Values. All other values wrong

Option C is correct

Q.No: 11 which of the following are recommendations of NEP 2020

Answer: Introduction of 4 Year Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP) in a multidisciplinary environment. The program aims at preparing teachers for Foundational, Preparatory, Middle and Secondary stages as per the new school structure of NEP2020

Option: C is correct

Q.No: 10 by selling an article at 6800 and incurred a loss of 15%. to get a profit of 15% what is the selling price

Answer: Approximately option D is correct 

Q.No: 9 at an election between two candidates, the winner is polled 68% of total votes and  won the election with majority of  3240. Then the total number of votes

Answer: A total votes (90,000)

Q.No 8 Rs. 1,50,000 is divided among A. B and C. such that A receives one-third as much as B and C together receive and B receives 2:/ as much as A and C together receive. Then share of C is

A = 13 (B + C)
And B = 23 ( A + C)
From (1),
Putting value of B in equation (2),
3AC = 23 (A + C)
A = 57 C
B=3AC=3 ×57 C-C = 87 C
Now A : B : C = 5:8:7
Share of C = 720× 1,500,000=Rs.52,500

 Download official Answer keys from below link

 AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key  SET-A

AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key SET-B

AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key SET-C

AP SET 2024 Paper-I Answer Key SET-D

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